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Saturday, 8 February 2014

IIBM ISO: 14001:2004 CASE STUDY ANSWERS FROM www.mbacasestudyanswers.com

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Examination Paper – ISO 14001:2004
   IIBM Institute of Business Management

                                                              Examination Paper                                             MM.100

Guidelines for paper

                       ISO: 14001:2004

• Total No. of Questions is 100.
• The minimum passing marks is 50%.
• Each Question carries 1 mark.
• Answer all the Questions.



   Multiple Choices:        Total Marks: 100

1. The ISO 14001 EMS standard only specifies

a) The structure of EMS
b) The working of EMS
c) The behavior of EMS
d) None

2. Which clause addresses the general requirements of an Environment Management System?

a) Clause 4.1
b) Clause 4.2
c) Clause 4.3
d) Clause 4.5

3. The ISO 14001 structure, like classic quality management systems, is based on

a) Plan – Check – Do – Act cycle
b) Check – Plan – Do – Act cycle
c) Do – Plan – Check – Act cycle
d) Plan – Do – Check – Act cycle

4. An environmental system

a) Serves as a tool to improve environmental performance
b) Provides a systematic way of managing an organization’s environmental affairs
c) Focuses on continual improvement of the system
d) All above





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IIBM Institute of Business Management
Examination Paper – ISO 14001:2004
5. Clause 4.5 of ISO 14001:2004 - …………………… corresponds to the check stage of the PDCA
cycle.

a) Planning
b) Checking
c) Verifying
d) None

6. A process of enhancing the environmental management system to achieve improvement is overall
environmental performance in line with the organization’s environmental policy is called

a) Environment
b) Continual Improvement
c) Prevention of Pollution
d) Environmental Aspect

7. Which clause states that, ‘the organization shall define and document the scope of its
environmental management system’?

a) Clause 4.5
b) Clause 4.3
c) Clause 4.1
d) Clause 4.2

8. Top managers demonstrate their commitment by articulating the …………………… values.

a) Written values
b) Environmental values
c) Physical values
d) Numeric values

9. Regarding ‘Prevention of Pollution’ the ISO  14001 : 2004 definition incorporates the concept of

a) End – of – pipe
b) End – of process
c) Reduce creation of pollutants
d) Eliminate waste at source

10. The environment policy is a statement of intension. It must be

a) Documented
b) Implemented
c) Maintained
d) All above

11. Planning is covered by

a) Clause 4.1
b) Clause 4.2
c) Clause 4.4
d) Clause 4.3
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IIBM Institute of Business Management
Examination Paper – ISO 14001:2004


12. Environmental aspects must be identified only for those activities products, and services that fall
within the …………………… .

a) Undefined scope
b) Defined scope
c) Any scope
d) Predefined procedure

13. The most typical approach to identification of environmental aspects involves

a) Examination of individual process
b) Investigate the complete process
c) Audition of environmental policy
d) None

14. Environmental impacts can be

a) Acute
b) Chronic
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None

15. Which clause of ISO 14001:2004 states that, ‘within the defined scope of its environmental
management system, the environmental policy is available to the public’?

a) Clause 4.2
b) Clause 4.2.5
c) Clause 4.3.1
d) Clause 4.5

16. If an organization’s environmental management system is to be effective, it must eliminate

a) Beneficial environmental effects
b) Wholly environmental effects
c) Partially environmental effects
d) Adverse environmental effects

17. Environmental Impact states that

a) Any change to the process
b) Effect of the climate
c) Any change to the environment
d) Change the overall management system





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IIBM Institute of Business Management
Examination Paper – ISO 14001:2004
18. Clause, which focuses on activities intended to improve the environmental management system,
is

a) Clause 4.4.4
b) Clause 4.5
c) Clause 4.6
d) Clause 4.3

19. The environmental policy statement contains language that only commits to compliance with

a) Legal requirements
b) Other requirements
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None

20. Who is the responsible for identifying and documenting the legal & other requirements that apply
to the unit’s environmental respects & operations?

a) ISO 14001 coordinator
b) Environmental manager
c) DNC staff
d) All above

21. The legal & other requirements that may be applicable to a unit’s environmental aspects may
include

a) National & International legal requirements
b) Local governmental legal requirements
c) ISO 14001 :  2004
d) All above

22. Clause, which mandates periodic evaluation to see whether an organization is in compliance with
all identified legal requirements, is

a) Clause 4.5.6
b) Clause 4.5.2
c) Clause 4.3.2
d) Clause 4.1

23. The framework for setting and receiving environmental objectives & targets is provided by

a) Environmental Management System
b) Environmental Manager
c) ISO 14001 :2004
d) Environmental Policy

24. Example of objectives that reflect the policy to conserve “natural resources” are

a) Reduce water use
b) Reduce energy use
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
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IIBM Institute of Business Management
Examination Paper – ISO 14001:2004
25. Environmental targets describe ……………….. will be to achieve stated objectives.

a) What
b) How much
c) Why
d) When

26. If there is a technology that could reduce a significant impact by 50%, but the organization
discovers that the purchasing price is equal to its entire operating budget. Then which factor
should conclude by the organization that precludes it from purchasing the technology?

a) Financial requirements
b) Legal requirements
c) Technological options
d) Operational requirements

27. In ISO 14001:2004, significant environmental aspects or impacts are the focus of

a) 4.2a clause
b) 4.3.2 clause
c) 4.4.2 clause
d) All above

28. An organization must establish objectives & targets related to

a) Regulatory compliance
b) Continual improvement
c) Compliance with other voluntary required
d) All above

29. A component, which must be determined by the organization in which specific objectives &
targets are to be achieved, is

a) Policy
b) System
c) Time frame
d) Management

30. The single most critical resource, at various levels with an organization is

a) Lack of money
b) Availability of employees
c) Bad goodwill
d) Labor

31. Within the context of an environmental management system, authority pertains to

a) Influence
b) Power
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
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IIBM Institute of Business Management
Examination Paper – ISO 14001:2004

32. The environmental policy statement contains language that commits to compliance with legal &
other requirements. This commitment is supported by

a) Clause 4.3.1
b) Clause 4.3.2
c) Clause 4.3.5
d) Clause 4.4.1

33. Nonconformity as “non – fulfillment of a requirement” is defined in

a) Section 3.17
b) Section 3.16
c) Section 3.15
d) Section 2.17

34. In ISO 14001:2004 clause 4.6 is related to

a) Internal audit
b) Monitoring & measurement
c) Evaluation of compliance
d) Management review

35. In any evaluation of worker competence, who may include

a) Temporary workers
b) Contractors
c) Other working on behalf of an organization
d) All above

36. Training needs must be identified for workers who are required to hold a

a) Worker label
b) Award
c) License
d) Any credential

37. Under which section an interested party is defined as a, “person or group concerned with or
affected by the environmental performance of an organization”?

a) Section 2.11
b) Section 4.12
c) Section 3.13
d) Section 1.11

38. ISO Awareness Training is recorded through various means & it is verified by

a) EMS Internal audits
b) Operational Control
c) Control of Records
d) ISO 14001 Coordinator
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IIBM Institute of Business Management
Examination Paper – ISO 14001:2004
39. Which clause confirmed an environmental management system audit is neither an environmental
performance audit not a regulatory compliance audit?

a) Clause 4.5.1
b) Clause 4.5.2
c) Clause 4.5.3
d) Both (a) & (b)

40. Sharing of information and exchange of ideas among all organizational functions and levels, is
referred to as

a) Transaction
b) Communication
c) Deal
d) Transmission

41. With regard to its environmental aspects and environmental management system, the organization
shall establish & maintain …………………………… between the various levels & function of
the organization.

a) External communication
b) Internal communication
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None

42. Clause, which states that responsibility must be defined, documented, & communicated, is

a) Clause 4.4.1
b) Clause 4.2.3
c) Clause 4.1.4
d) Clause 4.3.2

43. If an organization provides written information to its all employees, then it is

a) Communicating
b) Conferencing
c) Advertizing
d) Distribution of information

44. ISO 14001: 2004 uses the terms ‘levels’ and ‘function’. What does the ‘function’ word mean?

a) A group of members
b) A program organized at the last of the year
c) A group of related actions that contribute to a larger accomplishment
d) A position of rank

45. The example of external party for an organization could be

a) Regulatory agencies
b) Community residents
c) Civic associations
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IIBM Institute of Business Management
Examination Paper – ISO 14001:2004
d) All above

46. The environmental management system documentation shall include

a) The environmental policy
b) Objectives
c) Targets
d) All above

47. To establish effective procedure, it is necessary to understand what is meant by the term
communication, which is defined in

a) Clause 4.3.4
b) Clause  4.4.3
c) Clause 4.1.4
d) Clause 4.3.2

48. An umbrella document, often in the form of manual, that provides an overview of the EMS &
described how each element of ISO 14001 : 2004 is being achieved

a) System description
b) Procedure
c) Work instructions
d) Records

49. Work instructions provide

a) Detailed information for group
b) Information of EMS
c) Relevant data
d) Detailed information for individuals

50. A document explains

a) What must be done
b) Format of the work
c) How should it be done
d) When it should it be done

51. ISO 14001 :2004 states all documents required by the standard must be controlled which include

a) Environmental policy
b) Roles, responsibilities & authorities
c) Operational control procedures
d) All above

52. Documents, those created by others brought into an organization for some purpose, are subject to
somewhat different controls, are

a) Internal documents
b) External documents
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IIBM Institute of Business Management
Examination Paper – ISO 14001:2004
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None

53. Section, which defines a document as “information and its supporting medium,” is

a) Section 3.11
b) Section 2.10
c) Section 3.5
d) Section 3.4

54. Documents, which always reflect the current version because there is only on “location” (in
computer) at which documents are available and are increasingly used by organization, are

a) Internal documents
b) External documents
c) Electronic documents
d) All above

55.  A document, that is current at time of issuance and will be updated as revisions are made, is
called

a) Master lists
b) Controlled copy
c) Uncontrolled copy
d) Validation form

56. If the copies of EMS are downloaded, printed, and/or saved electronically, but they are
considered

a) Uncontrolled
b) Controlled
c) Current
d) None

57. The approaches selected by an organization to control its operations should reflect

a) The nature of the aspect of the interest
b) The media affected by its interest
c) The purpose of the control
d) All above

58. The operations of an organization is affected by its

a) Employees
b) Suppliers
c) Contractors
d) All above

59. Creating a new procedure , an organization can use its existing communication procedure to
fulfill the requirements, imposed by

a) Clause 4.5
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IIBM Institute of Business Management
Examination Paper – ISO 14001:2004
b) Clause 4.3.2
c) Clause 4.4.3
d) Clause 4.1.4

60. When universal waste & recyclable material is collected, stored, it has managed for disposal /
recycle, at

a) Dustbin
b) Recycling center
c) Organization
d) Anywhere

61. Evaluation of environmental impacts should consider

a) Accidental emission to the air
b) Accidental discharges to the water
c) Accidental discharges to the land
d) All above

62. A database, which includes information used to determine the root cause of the incident &
specifies corrective / preventive actions to prevent recurrence of the incident, is

a) Environmental Management System
b) Environmental Incident Reporting System
c) Integrated Contingency System
d) None

63. Clause 4.4.7 is related to

a) Emergency preparedness & response
b) Monitoring & measuring
c) Operational control
d) Control of documents

64. Regarding environmental incidents and emergency, all employees are trained to report
environmental incidents & emergency situations to

a) The Environmental Manager
b) Technical Service Manager
c) Contractor
d) Load Dispatcher

65. An organization, for every significant environmental impact must decide

a) What to measure
b) How to measure
c) When to measure
d) All above



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IIBM Institute of Business Management
Examination Paper – ISO 14001:2004
66. Which scales of measurement are used to identify categories of objects or events?

a) Nominal scales
b) Ordinal scales
c) Interval scales
d) Ratio scales

67. If adverse environmental impacts is labeled as “high – medium – low” as rated “3 – 2 – 1”, then
which scale would be useful to assign values represents things that are better or worse in
comparison others?

a) Nominal scales
b) Ordinal scales
c) Interval scales
d) Ratio scales

68. Whatever type of measure is selected, that must be

a) Reliable
b) Valid
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None

69. Documents that the organization feels are necessary to ensure effective operation & control of
process related to its significant environmental aspects, are required by

a) Clause 4.1.1
b) Clause 4.2.2
c) Clause 4.3.3
d) Clause 4.4.4

70. Data, which inform an organization whether procedure are being followed & whether they are
effective in managing environmental aspects & controlling related environmental impacts.

a) Data obtained form ICP
b) Data obtained from EMS
c) Data obtained through the measurement techniques
d) Data obtained through the measurement & monitoring techniques

71. For ISO 14001 registration, an organization must provide evidence of

a) A procedure for evaluating legal compliance
b) Compliance review by management
c) Corrective action for any noncompliance
d) All above

72. If the organization’s ……………………………… has not identified the noncompliance, the
registrar audit team will ascertain whether the organization had identified & has access to its legal
& other requirements.

a) Internal audits
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IIBM Institute of Business Management
Examination Paper – ISO 14001:2004
b) External audit
c) Registration audit
d) None

73. Who will first attempt to determine whether the audited organization’s internal audit team
identified the same noncompliance?

a) Audit team
b) Manager
c) Registrar Audit Team
d) Auditor

74. If organization has identified the requirement with which its fails to comply, the registrar audit
team will question, that

a) Why evaluation of compliance did not reveal this efficiency
b) Why evaluation of compliance is not suitable
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None

75. Clause, which says that, ‘the organization shall keep records of the results of the periodic
evaluation, is

a) Clause 4.5.2.1
b) Clause 4.5.2.2
c) Clause 4.4.2
d) Clause 4.4.3

76. Who is responsible for the scheduling & completion of quarterly audits of objectives & targets &
periodic audits of selective environmental compliance issues?

a) Technical Services Manager
b) Satellite point Manager
c) EMS Manager
d) ISO 14001 Coordinator

77. Preventive action is defined as

a) Action to eliminate the causing of a potential nonconformity
b) Action to eliminate the cause of a potential conformity
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None

78. Identification of nonconformities tends to be considered in conjunction with

a) Environmental Management System
b) EMS Audits
c) List of nonconformities
d) None



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IIBM Institute of Business Management
Examination Paper – ISO 14001:2004
79. An organization must take action to mitigate environmental harm that already resulted from the

a) Conformity
b) Mistake
c) Nonconformity
d) Process

80. When corrective or preventive action is taken, the …………………….. will review the action at
an appropriate time to determine the results of the action.

a) Technical Services Manager
b) ISO 14001 Coordinator
c) Suppliers
d) Environmental Manager/ Designee

81. Prevention action defined as “action to eliminate the cause of a potential nonconformity” in
section

a) Section 3.17
b) Section 3.15
c) Section 3.3
d) None

82. ……………………. provide information that confirms the occurrence of activities or verifies
performance relative to a fixed or recommended standard.

a) Data
b) Files
c) Records
d) Diaries

83. The ISO 14001 :2004 states explicitly that records must be kept

a) Compliance, training & awareness
b) Monitoring & measurement
c) Internal audit
d) All above

84. Internal audit is defined in

a) Clause 4.3.1
b) Clause 4.5.5
c) Clause 4.4.1
d) Clause 4.4.3

85. Records should be in ink, rather than pencil, to prevent

a) Smudging
b) Darkness
c) Readability
d) Legibility

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IIBM Institute of Business Management
Examination Paper – ISO 14001:2004
86. The linkage between an activity and an associated record should be clear, this feature of record is
known as

a) Identifiable
b) Legible
c) Traceable
d) All above

87. Which section defines an auditor is a “person with the competence to conduct an audit”?

a) Section 3.14
b) Section 3.17
c) Section 3.1
d) Section 3.4

88. Any record, electronic or hard copy, identified on the environmental records retention schedule
that demonstrates conformance with EMS & legal & other requirements, is known as

a) Environmental record
b) Environmental aspect
c) Information
d) Document

89. The ……………….. is used to determine if it is time to destroy an environmental record.

a) EMS List
b) Employee’s Detail List
c) Records Retention List
d) None

90. An environmental management system audit is

a) Environmental performance audit
b) Regulatory Compliance Audit
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None

91. An EMS audit verifies that appropriate procedures are in place & functioning to ensure
conformity with

a) ISO 14001 : 2004
b) An organization’s document
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None

92. The internal audit procedure must address

a) Responsibilities
b) Audit Criteria
c) Frequency
d) All above
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IIBM Institute of Business Management
Examination Paper – ISO 14001:2004


93. Smaller organizations may be unable to delicate the resources required for a sufficient no. of
auditors. In such a circumstance, an organization might borrow auditors from

a) Corporate headquarters
b) Consortia
c) Consulting firms
d) Sister facilities

94. Information that is verifiable & is based on facts obtained through observation measurement,
testing, or other means, is

a) Nonconformance
b) Conformance
c) Objective evidence
d) None

95. Input to management review shall include

a) Results of internal audits
b) Communication(s) from external interested parties, including complaints
c) Status of corrective & preventive actions
d) All above

96. Management review should be viewed as

a) Strategic
b) Potential
c) Tactical in Nature
d) None

97. Decision – makers, who contribute to the management review process & provide the authority &
resources to address recommended improvements, are

a) Managers
b) Employees
c) Contractors
d) Executives

98. The reason given by SMEs for implementing ISO 14001 is

a) Customer requirements
b) Continuous improvement or environmental performance
c) Improved regulatory compliance
d) All above

99. The small organization, those with one to five employees, sometimes referred to as

a) Medium enterprises
b) Micro enterprises
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IIBM Institute of Business Management
Examination Paper – ISO 14001:2004
c) Mini enterprises
d) Super enterprises


100. Continual improvement as a “recurring process of enhancing the environmental management
system in order to achieve improvements in overall environmental performance consistent with
the organization’s environment policy”, is defined by

a) Section 3.1
b) Section 3.14
c) Section 3.17
d) Section 3.2
16
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ISBM / IIBMS / IIBM / ISMS / KSBM / NIPM
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Friday, 7 February 2014

IIBM ISO: 9001: 2008 CASE STUDY ANSWERS FROM www.mbacasestudyanswers.com

ISBM / IIBMS / IIBM / ISMS / KSBM / NIPM
SMU / SYMBIOSIS / XAVIER / NIRM / PSBM
ISM / IGNOU / IICT / ISBS / LPU / ISM&RC

MBA - EMBA - BMS - GDM - MIS - MIB
DMS - DBM - PGDM - DBM - DBA

www.mbacasestudyanswers.com


ARAVIND 09901366442 - 09902787224

Examination Paper of ISO 9001 : 2008
             IIBM Institute of Business Management

               Examination Paper                                             MM.100

Guidelines for paper

                                 ISO: 9001: 2008

• Total No. of Questions is 100.
• The minimum passing marks is 50%.
• Each Question carries 1 mark.
• Answer all the Questions.


    Multiple Choices:        Total Marks: 100

1. A desired result is achieved more efficiently when activities & related resources are managed as a

a) Program
b) Process
c) Aim
d) Project

2. An advantage of process approach is

a) Internal working
b) External management
c) Ongoing control
d) None

3. A quality management system has confirmed to ISO 9001:2008 is aimed to achieve

a) Minimum quality
b) Best quality
c) Maximum profit
d) Customer satisfaction

4. If exclusions are not limited to requirements with clause 7, then which action is taken against
claims of confirmed

a) Claims of conformity to this international standard are not acceptable
b) Claims of conformity to this international standard are acceptable
c) Modify those exclusions
d) None

5. Whenever the term “product” is used, it can also mean

a) Cost
b) Quality
c) Profit
d) Service
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IIBM Institute of Business Management
Examination Paper of ISO 9001 : 2008
6. A process that the organization needs for its quality management system and which the
organization chooses to have performed by an external party, is

a) Outsourced process
b) Internal process
c) External process
d) None

7. To determine how all of the process relate to each other, process must be

a) Mapped
b) Flowcharted
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None

8. The term “quality” can be used with adjective such as

a) Poor
b) Good
c) Excellent
d) All above

9.  Which clause requires the organization to identify and prepare documents necessary for effective
planning, operation, and control of its processes?

a) Clause 3.2
b) Clause 1.4
c) Clause 4.2.1d
d) Clause 2.4e

10. There is no requirement to create a documented procedure for describing the process of creating a
quality policy in

a) Clause 4.2.3
b) Clause 8.5.2
c) Clause 5.3
d) Clause 7.1

11. The extent of quality management system documentation dependent on the

a) Size & type of organization
b) Complexity & interaction of the organization’s process
c) Competency of the organization’s people
d) All above

12. According to clause 3.7.2, the document is defines as

a) Information and supporting medium
b) Product
c) Report
d) Data

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IIBM Institute of Business Management
Examination Paper of ISO 9001 : 2008
13. Top management is required to ensure that customer requirements are

a) Determined
b) Understood
c) Met
d) All above

14. According to clause 3.3.5, the “customer” term is defined as

a) Organization or person that receives product
b) A person that sells a product
c) Purchaser
d) None

15. Clause, which requires that top management establish the quality policy is

a) Clause 5.3
b) Clause 5.1
c) Clause 3.2
d) Clause 4.3

16. Once the policy is established the organization must _________________ it.

a) Deploy
b) Implement
c) Recreate
d) Verify

17. The quality policy describes overall interactions and direction of an organization related to
quality as formally expressed by top management. This definition is defined by

a) Clause 3.2.4
b) Clause 3.3.1
c) Clause 3.1.1
d) Clause 3.2.7

18. Clause, which requires management of change so that the integrity of the quality management
system is maintained when the system is change, is

a) Clause 3.2.4
b) Clause 5.4.2
c) Clause 3.2.1
d) Clause 4.5.3

19. According to clause 5.2, who is responsible to ensure that customer requirements are determined
and met with the aim of enhancing customer satisfaction?

a) Top management
b) Employees of the organization
c) Low level manager
d) None
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IIBM Institute of Business Management
Examination Paper of ISO 9001 : 2008
20. An activity defined in clause 3.8.7 undertaken to determine the suitability, adequacy &
effectiveness of the subject matter to achieve established objective, is

a) Process
b) Procedure
c) Review
d) Requirement

21. Clause, which requires that personnel are competent, is

a) Clause 6.2.4
b) Clause 6.2.1
c) Clause 5.2.3
d) Clause 6.5

22. According to clause 3.1.6, competency is defined as

a) Demonstrated ability to apply knowledge and skills
b) To compare with other organization
c) Improvement in quality
d) None

23. The records that are created by the activities to ensure competency may need to be enrolled per
clause 4.2.2, which is related to

a) Control of documents
b) Control of records
c) Quality Management System
d) Monitoring & Measurement

24. The organization need to identify what classroom training, seminars, on-the-job, or other training
is necessary so that

a) Top managers involved in Quality Management System is competent
b) Low level managers involved in Quality Management System is competent
c) Every employee involved in Quality Management System is competent
d) All above

25. From the following in which part it is common practice to conduct training evaluation?

a) Evaluation of the training immediately upon completion
b) Evaluation of the training received several weeks after the training
c) Evaluation of  the skills developed several months after the training
d) All above

26. Which clause defines the infrastructure as system of facilities, equipment & services needed for
the operation of an organization?

a) Clause 3.6.1
b) Clause 3.3.3
c) Clause 3.3.1
d) Clause 3.3.2
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IIBM Institute of Business Management
Examination Paper of ISO 9001 : 2008
27. The work environment of an organization can be considered to be a combination of

a) Internal & external events
b) Human & process
c) Customers & consumers
d) Human & physical factors

28. Which physical factor can affect the work environment?

a) Heat
b) Hygiene
c) Humidity
d) All above

29. From the following which clause provides the essence of the use of the process approach?

a) Clause 4.1
b) Clause 8.1
c) Clause 7.1
d) All above

30. According to clause 3.4.2, the product is defined as

a) Result of a process
b) A service
c) Software
d) Hardware

31. The planning for realization processes covered in _________________ should define the records
the organization will keep during the process of determining customer requirements.

a) Clause 7.5
b) Clause 7.1
c) Clause 8.3
d) Clause 2.8

32. The obligation assumed by the organization includes not only the products defined but also
ancillary items such as

a) Conformance to stated delivery dates
b) Adherence to referenced external standards
c) Compliance with the commercial terms & condition applicable to the order, contract,
quote or tender
d) All above

33. According which clause, the organizations have the ability to meet requirements?

a) Clause 6.2.2
b) Clause 7.2.2
c) Clause 8.2.2
d) Clause 5.2.2
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IIBM Institute of Business Management
Examination Paper of ISO 9001 : 2008
34. A critical activity generally involves several functions & levels in an organization, is

a) Sell the product
b) Improve the quality
c) Determination of customer requirements
d) None

35. The arrangement identified & implemented should be appropriate for the organization in terms of

a) Its products
b) Its orders
c) Its contracts
d) All above

36. Clause, which applies to all product type, to all market sectors, and to organization of all sizes, is

a) Clause 7.2.1
b) Clause 6.5.2
c) Clause 3.5.3
d) Clause 2.6.2

37. The intent of clause ____________ is to make sure that the organization plans and controls
design and development projects.

a) Clause 6.4
b) Clause 7.2.1
c) Clause 7.3.1
d) Clause 5.4.2

38. If the design and development processes are planned and controlled well, then the projects will be
completed

a) On time
b) Within budget
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None

39. The output from the design and development process is expected to include an information that
relates to

a) Producing
b) Creating
c) Manufacturing
d) Processing

40. According to clause 4.2.2, inputs relating to product requirements shall be determined and records
maintained. These inputs shall include

a) Functional and performance requirements
b) Applicable statuary & regulatory requirements
c) Where applicable, information derived form previous similar designs
d) All above
6
IIBM Institute of Business Management
Examination Paper of ISO 9001 : 2008
41. Which clause defines the requirements specification for new product & maintains the records?

a) Clause 7.3.2
b) Clause 8.7.2
c) Clause 6.4.1
d) Clause 5.4.3

42. Which work should not begin until a document exits in form acceptable to all who have
responsibility for contributing to product specification?

a) Designing
b) Development
c) Production
d) Selling

43. Design and development output be provided in a way that can be used for

a) Identification
b) Justification
c) Validation
d) Verification

44. Which statement is true?

a) Validation is usually performed after successful design & development verification
b) Verification is usually performed after successful design & development validation
c) Validation & verification both are same
d) Validation & verification both are performed simultaneously

45. Which clause requires that the organization shall ensure that purchased product conforms to
specified purchase requirements?

a) Clause 8.2.1
b) Clause 7.4.1
c) Clause 6.5.2
d) Clause 4.4.1

46. Clause 7.4.1 requires records of the results of supplier evaluations and subsequent follow-up
actions, with specific reference to

a) Clause 5.2
b) Clause 4.2.4
c) Clause 5.3.1
d) Clause 7.2.1

47. Clause, which requires the organization defined a process for verifying that purchased product
conforms to defined requirements, is

a) Clause 7.4.3
b) Clause 7.4.2
c) Clause 7.4.1
d) Clause 7.4.5
7
IIBM Institute of Business Management
Examination Paper of ISO 9001 : 2008
48. Clause, which requires to pertain when verification activities are to be performed at the supplier’s
premises, is

a) Clause 7.4.3
b) Clause 7.4.2
c) Clause 7.4.1
d) Clause 7.4.5

49.  Which clause requires a process to ensure that purchasing documents adequacy state all of the
requirements for the items to be purchased?

a) Clause 7.4.1
b) Clause 7.4.2
c) Clause 7.4.3
d) Clause 7.4.4

50. If purchased material has high actual potential impact on either the final product on the
realization processes, then

a) No need to control it
b) Less control is required
c) More robust control is required
d) None

51. Determination the nature of the control is the responsibility of

a) Suppliers
b) Customers
c) Employees
d) Organization

52. Which clause addresses the processes necessary for an organization to produce and deliver
product & services?

a) Clause 6.4.1
b) Clause 5.2.3
c) Clause 7.5.1
d) Clause 7.2.3

53. Documentation requirements for the overall quality management system are stated in

a) Clause 4
b) Clause 5
c) Clause 6
d) Clause 7

54. The focus of clause 7.5.1, ‘control of production and service provision’, is the key concept that
processed need to be carried out under

a) Uncontrolled conditions
b) Controlled conditions
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
8
IIBM Institute of Business Management
Examination Paper of ISO 9001 : 2008
55. If changes are made to process equipment, the product design, the materials used to produce the
product or to other significant factors such as new personnel, then the process often requires

a) Reevaluation
b) Revalidation
c) Reproduction
d) Recertification

56. Validation should be carried out at appropriate ________________ to respond to changes in
market requirements, regulations, or standard in addition to assuring the continued acceptable
performance of processes.

a) Intervals
b) Checkouts
c) Positions
d) Timings

57. Which one is true?

a) Identification and traceability are same
b) Identification and traceability are not same
c) Identification and traceability are not related
d) Identification and traceability are separate bur related issues

58.  Identification and traceability is related to

a) Clause 7.5.3
b) Clause 7.5.2
c) Clause 8.2.1
d) Clause 7.5.1

59. Clause, which provides the framework for the establishment and maintenance of a measurement
system, is

a) Clause 7.1
b) Clause 6.5
c) Clause 7.6
d) Clause 5.6

60. According to clause 8.1 ‘Measurement, Analysis & Improvement’, from the following which is
the responsibility of the organization?

a) What it needs to monitor & measure
b) Where to monitor & measure
c) What analysis should be performed
d) All above

61. Which clause monitored the customer satisfaction information?

a) Clause 7.2.1
b) Clause 8.2.1
c) Clause 8.2.5
d) Clause 6.2.4
9
IIBM Institute of Business Management
Examination Paper of ISO 9001 : 2008
62. Internal audit of the quality management system remains grouped with clauses for monitoring
information relation to __________________.

a) Customer requirements
b) Customer perceptions
c) Customer satisfaction
d) All above

63. Clause 8.4, ______________________, of ISO 9001:2008, which could be a source of
information in identifying the key process to monitor.

a) Monitoring & measurement
b) Control of records
c) Analysis of data
d) Customer satisfaction

64. When process monitoring or measurements indicate that the desired results are not being
achieved, the process may need ________________ to identify and eliminate root causes.

a) Corrective action
b) Reproduction
c) Modification
d) Perceptive action

65. Monitoring & Measurement of a product is related to

a) Clause 8.2.4
b) Clause 7.2.4
c) Clause 6.2.1
d) Clause 7.3.2
66. For purchased material, clause ___________, ‘verification of purchased product’, requires the
organization to identify and implement verification activities.

a) Clause 7.5.1
b) Clause 8.2.3
c) Clause 8.2.4
d) Clause 7.4.3

67. Which clause requires establishing process to ensure that product that does not confirm to
requirement is identified and controlled to prevent unintended use or delivery?

a) Clause 8.2
b) Clause 8.3
c) Clause 7.5
d) Clause 6.4

68. Is services are the product of an organization, clause 8.3 may have ___________ applicability.

a) Limited
b) Unlimited
c) Complete
d) Less

10
IIBM Institute of Business Management
Examination Paper of ISO 9001 : 2008
69. A(n) _______________ shall be established to define the controls & related responsibilities and
authorities for dealing with non conforming product.

a) Documented procedure
b) Report
c) File
d) Information

70. When nonconforming product is corrected it shall be subject to _________________ to
demonstrate conformity to the requirements.

a) Revalidation
b) Re verification
c) Review
d) Implement

71. The organization should consider documenting a process for addressing situations in which
_____________ is detected after delivery to or use by a customer has occurred.

a) Nonconformity product
b) Conformity product
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None

72. The analysis of data shall provide information relating to

a) Customer satisfaction
b) Conformity to product requirements
c) Suppliers
d) All above

73. The clause, which requires the organization to collect & analyze appropriate data to determine the
suitability & effectiveness of the quality management system, is

a) Clause 8.1
b) Clause 8.2
c) Clause 8.3
d) Clause 8.4

74. Clauses, which are linked in the sense that the organization should function on a closed-loop
bases, are

a) Clauses 5, 6 and 7
b) Clauses 6,7 and 8
c) Clauses 5,7 and 8
d) Clauses 4,5 and 6

75. The _______________ is a powerful tool for driving continual improvement.

a) QMS
b) Analysis of Data
c) Modify data
d) Improvement
11
IIBM Institute of Business Management
Examination Paper of ISO 9001 : 2008
76. Collecting of data without developing the data into useful information is a (n) _______________
of organizational resources.

a) Product
b) Service
c) Tool
d) Waste

77. The purpose of analysis is to convert data into

a) Usable information
b) Relevant information
c) Product
d) None

78. The organization should seriously consider documenting expectation for continual improvement
at least in the area of data related to

a) Customer satisfaction
b) Conforming to product requirements
c) Opportunities for preventive action
d) All above

79. The appropriate information on customer satisfaction on and/ or dissatisfaction may depend upon
the ______________ of an organization relationship with its customer.

a) Nature
b) Behavior
c) Service
d) All above
80. The organization shall continually improve the effectiveness of the QMS through the use of the

a) Quality policy
b) Quality objectives
c) Audit results
d) All above

81. The setting of objectives consistent with a quality policy containing a commitment to continual
improvement of the effectiveness of the QMS is required in

a) Clause 5.4.1
b) Clause 5.4.3
c) Clause 5.4.4
d) Clause 6.2.1

82. The intent of clause _____________ is to achieve an integrated improvement mentality
throughout the organization.

a) Clause 8.5.4
b) Clause 8.4.1
c) Clause 8.5.1
d) Clause 8.3.2
12
IIBM Institute of Business Management
Examination Paper of ISO 9001 : 2008
83. ________________ involves the taking action to eliminate the causes of nonconformities.

a) Corrective action
b) Preventive action
c) Improvement
d) Analysis of data

84. Clause, which is related to requirements for customer communications states that arrangement
must be made with customer relating to complains, is

a) Clause 8.3
b) Clause 8.5.2
c) Clause 7.2.3
d) Clause 6.2.1

85. In preventive action the organization is required to identify how it will eliminate the “causes” of
potential nonconformities in order to prevent their

a) Resources
b) Occurrence
c) Visibility
d) None

86. FMECA stands for

a) Failure modes, effect, and critical analysis
b) Failure modes, eliminate and cancel analysis
c) Foreign money exchange and complete association
d) None

87. Which clause requires records of preventive action results with specific reference  to clause 4.2.4
for control of records generated?

a) Clause 8.4.1
b) Clause 7.2.4
c) Clause 8.5.2
d) Clause 8.5.3

88. The success or failure of the Quality Management System implementation depends on

a) How the requirements are implemented
b) The process used for implementation
c) The midset of top managers & other employees
d) All above

89. Planning for continual improvement described in ISO 9001:2008,

a) Clause 5.4.2
b) Clause 8.1
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None

13
IIBM Institute of Business Management
Examination Paper of ISO 9001 : 2008
90. Active and serious management review of the entire loop required in

a) Clause 4.2
b) Clause 5.6
c) Clause 7.2
d) Clause 8.6

91. A desired result is achieved more efficiently when activities and related resources are manage as
a

a) Process
b) Project
c) Individual work
d) Plan

92. A process is nothing more than a collection of

a) Related activities
b) Interrelated activities
c) Modules
d) Individual task

93. ___________________ provide requirements to the process and feedback how well those
requirements have been met.

a) Consumers
b) Customers
c) Suppliers
d) Managers

94. A system is a collection of _________________ with a common set of objectives & outputs.

a) Interrelated process
b) Interrelated activities
c) Hardware
d) Software

95. The approach in which audits all of the process, each major process can be ensure compliance
with ISO 9001:2008 called

a) Horizontal audit
b) Vertical audit
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None

96. Vertical audits can be used for ________________ areas that have major parts of the overall
system.

a) Process
b) Planning
c) Functional
d) Improvement
14
IIBM Institute of Business Management
Examination Paper of ISO 9001 : 2008




 


97. In which sector ISO 9001 certification is frequently used to increase confidence in the products &
services provided by certified organization?

a) Private
b) Public
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None

98. The key objective of the ISO/IEC sector policy is

a) Maximize the use of generic QMS international standards
b) Support international trade & remove trade barriers
c) Support developing countries
d) All above

99. Records of audits and their results are described in

a) Clause 8.2.2
b) Clause 8.2.4
c) Clause 7.5
d) Clause 8.3.4

100. The basis used for calibration is defined in

a) Clause 7.3
b) Clause 7.6a
c) Clause 7.5.2a
d) Clause 7.3.4
 


15
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Examination Paper of Corporate Governance
                                                   IIBM Institute of Business Management

                                                                   Examination Paper                                     MM. 100
                                 
                 Corporate Governance

IIBM Institute of Business Management   1

               Section A: Objective Type & Short Questions (30 Marks)

 This section consists of Multiple Choice & Short Note Types questions.
 Answer all the questions.
 Part one carries 1 mark each & Part Two carries 5 marks each.

Part One:

Multiple Choices:

1. ________A group of persons chosen to govern the affairs of a corporation or other large institution.
      a .Memorandum of Association
      b. Nomination Committee
      c. Board of Directors
      d. Shareholders

2. BIFR stands for_______
      a. Board of India and Financial Reconstruction
      b. Board of Industrial and Financial Reconstruction
      c. Board of Industrial and Finance Reconstruction
      d. None of the above

3. ________is a review in which an auditor analyzes and verifies various records and processes relating to a  
     company‟s quality program.
      a. Cost Audit
      b. Quality Audit
      c. Internal Audit
      d. None of the above

4. Which of the following comes under in Justification?
      a. Long Run Viability
      b. Better Environment
      c. Public Image
      d. All of the above

5. USEPA stands for_______
 
6. The existence of a single producer or seller which is producing or selling a product which has no close      
     substitutes is called_______
      a. Externalities
      b. Price control
      c. Monopoly
      d. None of the above
 
7. SEBI stands for______
Examination Paper of Corporate Governance
      a. Securities and exchange Board of India
      b. Stock and exchange Board of India
      c. Self-regulatory and exchange Board of India
      d. None of the above

8. Which of the following issue is not come under in corporate Governance?
      a. Correct Preparation
      b. Internal Control
      c. oversight and management risk
      d. Compensation of CEO and other Directors

9. Shareholder are required to inform the company in writing of any change in their address quoting their
    folio number is known as______
      a. Change of address
      b. Transposition of shares
      c. None receipt of Dividend
      d. All of the above

10. Which of the following comes under External corporate Governance controls?
      a. Competition
      b. Managerial labour market
      c. Debt Covenants
      d. All of the above

Part Two:



IIBM Institute of Business Management   2

1. What are the scopes of corporate governance?

2. Discuss the basic rights of shareholders?
3. List the type of “Auditors”.
4. Write a short note on corporate social responsibility.



                                              Section B: Caselets (40 Marks)

 This section consists of Caselets.
 Answer all the questions.
 Each caselet carries 20 marks.
 Detailed information should form the part of your answer (Word limit 150 to 200 words)
                                                   
                                                               Caselet 1
Real Juice Company
END OF SECTION A
The company is in the business of producing and marketing fruit juices. Ritu joshi and Rohit Jain were
looking at the ad copy and turning it over and over again in their mind. The copy read, “The best fitness plan
for you real fruit, honest juice and no sugar. This was the main copy line. The more Ritu joshi repeated this
Examination Paper of Corporate Governance
line in her mind the uneasier she became. Something is wrong in the copy, she said to Rohit jain, the
marketing head. We cannot say best for health when we know for sure that the juice contain preservatives
and food color.
Rohit jain said, I don‟t see if anything is wrong in this. With food colors and preservatives added we couldn‟t
say it is best. This is what is wrong m replied Ritu.
Rohit said, but this is hyperbole and permitted by law. There is nothing wrong in saying this. Have you not
almost noticed all detergent brands say for best wash or whitest wash? This is simply a way of putting your
claim of brand‟s superiority. We are not talking about detergent washes and fabrics it is a health and fitness
fruit juice. We could not say something like‟, a great way to plan your fitness programme‟ or something like
that. We are saying real fruit, honest juice, and no sugar‟ … not a word about food color and preservatives‟.
Any consumer can contest our claim.”
Rohit Jain though for a moment then said, “let us get the legal opinion from our lawyer, Amit soni, to be on
the safe guard.
Amit listened to what Ritu had to say then said, “Companies use advertising to provide information to
consumers and offer alternatives in a competitive market situation. Advertising is false when it says A=B
and that is not true. But the ad is misleading; it falls under the category of unfair trade practice.” Loudly
reading the ad copy, Amit said‟” hyperbole such as best, newest most effective way, are permissible and
consumers are unlikely to take such claims with ant seriousness. When a brand says its air-conditioner is best
or most efficient, consumers know that this is just a manner of speech and do not truly believe and put their
money on such claims.
“Yes, Real juice passes the legal test fine, but ethically it won‟t be correct,” said Ritu joshi. “Please
understand. Here you are not making a claim,” said Amit soni.
Amit soni said,” comparative advertising is healthy but the advertiser must be clear about the claims to be
made. In this case, you are saying that Teal juice is good because it comes in cans and bottled drinks are not
as good. This is a direct attack on bottled drinks. Advertiser does not disclose all the parameters they have
considered in their conclusion of „best‟. They may select some major ones or may cheese to highlight the
trivial ones and ignore the major ones. These things happen every day and are not strictly provided under the
law. There must be prima facie evidence of damage or misrepresentation to establish a case of unfair trade
practice.” “so, we are legally safe,” said Rohit jain. “We will reword this campaign, but our other campaigns
have passed to muster.”
Ritu joshi felt differently, she said, “legally we may safe, but we have to also take an ethical view.”
We must not forget that our primary platform is health and fitness. This convenience angle is also crating
and impression of „good for health‟. I believe that as responsible advertisers, we have to be more concerned
about the ethical aspects than merely the legal angle. This is where we come to the line between what is legal
and what is ethical. We may be legally right but our act could be unethical if the word or pictures in the ad
could lead the consumer to believe something that is not true. The aura of the fitness instructor used as
endorser creates an impression that the information is coming to consumers from an environment where
there are people whose opinion consumer‟s view as being correct. Otherwise why use the instructor as
endorser.”
Question:

IIBM Institute of Business Management   3

1. Analyze the issues in the case.

2. Why should advertiser bother about ethics if the ads measure up to legal parameters


Caselet 2

Over the course of Microsoft‟s history, the board has developed corporate governance practices to help it
fulfill its responsibilities to shareholders to oversee the work of management and the company‟s business
results.  The governance practices are memorialized in these guidelines to assure that the board will have the
necessary authority and practices in place to review and evaluate the company‟s business operation as
Examination Paper of Corporate Governance
needed and to make decision that are independent of the company‟s management. The guidelines are also
intended to align the interests of directors and management with those of Microsoft‟s shareholders.
The guidelines are subject to future refinement or changes as the board may find necessary or advisable for
Microsoft in order to achieve these objectives.

Board composition and selection: independent Directors
IIBM Institute of Business Management   4


1. Board Size: The board believes 8 to 10 is an appropriate size based on the company‟s present
circumstances. The board periodically evaluates whether a larger or smaller slate of directors would
be preferable
2. Selection of Board members: All members are elected annually by the company‟s shareholders,
except as noted below with respect to vacancies.
       The board may fill vacancies in existing or new directors‟ positions.
3) Board membership criteria: The governance  and nominating committee works with the board on
the annual basis to determine the appropriate characteristics, skills and experience for the board as a
whole and its individual board members, the board takes into accounts many factor including general
understanding of marketing, finance and other discipline relevant to the success of a large publicity –
traded company in today‟s business environment; understanding of Microsoft‟s business on a
technical level.
4) Board Composition: Mix of management and independent directors. The board believes that,
except during periods of temporary vacancies, a majority of its directors must be independents.
5) Term Limits: Director who have served on the board for an extended period of time are able to
provide valuable insight into the operation and future of the company based on their experience with
an understanding of the company‟s history, policies and objectives.
6) Retirement Policy: The board believes that 75 is an appropriate retirement age for outside directors.
7) Directors with significant job changes: The board believes that any director who retires from his
or her present employment, or who materially changes his or her position, should tender resignation
to the board.
8) Selection of CEO and Chairman: The board selects the company‟s CEO and Chairman in the
manner that it determines to be in the best interests of the company‟s shareholders.
Board meetings: involvement of Senior Management
9) Board meeting-agenda: The Chairman of the board and CEO, taking into account suggestions from
other members of the board, will set the agenda for each board meeting, and will distribute the
agenda in advance to each director.
10) Advance distribution of material: All information relevant to board‟s understanding of matters to
be discussed at an upcoming board meeting should be distributed in writing or electronically to all
members in advance.
11) Access to employees: The board should have access to company employees in order to ensure that
directors can ask all questions and glean all information necessary to fulfill their duties.
12) Executive session of independent directors: The independent directors of the company will meet
regularly o executive session, i.e., with no management directors or management present, at least
three times each fiscal year.
Performance Evaluation: Succession Planning
13) Annual CEO Evaluation: The chair of the governance and nominating committee leads the
independent directors in conducting a review at least annually of the performance of the CEO and
communicates the result of the review to the CEO.
14) Succession Planning: As part of the annual officer evaluation process, the compensation committee
works with the CEO to plan for CEO succession, as well as to develop plan for interim succession
for the CEO in the event of an unexpected occurrences.
15) Board self-evaluation: The governance and nominating committee is responsible for conducting an
annual evaluation of the performance of the full board and reports its conclusion to the board.
Compensation
Examination Paper of Corporate Governance
IIBM Institute of Business Management   5

16) Board compensation review: Company management should report to the board on an annual basis
as to how the company‟s director compensation practices compare with those of other large public
corporations.
17) Directors’ stock ownership: The board believes that, in order to align the interests of directors and
shareholders, directors should have a significant financial stake in the company.
Committees
18) Number and types of committees: The board has 5 committees- an Audit committee, a
compensation committee, governance and nominating committee, a finance committee, and an
antitrust compliance committee. The board may add new committees or remove existing committees
as it deems advisable in the fulfillment of its primary responsibilities.
a. Audit committee
b. Compensation committee
c. Governance and Nominating committee
d. Finance committee
19) Composition of committee: Committee chairperson. The audit, compensation, governance and
nominating and antitrust compliance committees consist solely of independent directors.
20) Committee Meetings and Agenda: The chairperson of each committee is responsible for
developing, together with relevant company managers, the committee‟s general agenda and
objectives and for setting the specific agenda for committee meeting.
Miscellaneous
21) Review of governance guidelines: The practices memorialized in these guidelines have developed
over a period of years. The board expects to review these guidelines at least every two years as
appropriate.
Questions:

1. List the number and types of committees.
2. Discuss the Performance evaluation planning in brief.



Section C: Applied Theory (30 Marks)

 This section consists of Long Questions.
 Answer all the questions.
 Each question carry 15 marks each.
 Detailed information should from the part of your Answer (Word limit 200 to 250 words)

1. Define corporate governance; explain the principles of corporate governance?

2. Distinguish between the Anglo-American Model and the German Model.





                                                                                    S-2-300813                                                                                                                
                                                                             
END OF SECTION B
END OF SECTION C

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